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Presented by Dr. Jonathan Epstein and prepared by Dr. Yembur Ahmad
This case talks about an adult male with a testicular tumor.
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1. Question
Clinical History: A 40 year old man underwent an orchiectomy for a testicular tumor.
Choose the correct diagnosis:
Correct
Correct Diagnosis: A
Histological Description: The tumor consisted of sheets of neoplastic cells, Cytologically, there were three basic cell types. The predominant cell type was round-intermediate size with eosinophilic cytoplasm and round nuclei with characteristic lacy filamentous chromatin (spiremic pattern). The second type is smaller cells with dark nuclei and scant eosinophilic cytoplasm, while the third type is large mononucleated or multinucleated giant cells. Mitotic activity was brisk. A lymphoplasmacytic and granulomatous infiltrate was absent.Discussion: Spermatocytic tumor was formerly called spermatocytic seminoma with the term classic seminoma used for the typical seminoma. Given that the former has virtually no similarities to usual seminoma, spermatocytic seminoma was renamed spermatocytic tumor. As there is no longer a spermatocytic variant of seminoma, there is no need to use the term “classic seminoma” and currently usual seminoma is just classified as “seminoma”. Spermatocytic tumors usually occur in older males, typically 5th -6th decades, yet uncommonly can be seen in younger men in the 2nd to 4th decades with overlap with seminoma. In contrast to seminoma, spermatocytic tumors: 1) have no primary extra-testicular counterpart; 2) usually lack a lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate; 3) have no associated granulomatous response; 4) have no associated syncitiotrophoblastic giant cells; 5 ) lack germ cell neoplasia in situ yet may have intratubular spermatocytic tumor; 6) OCT4 is negative; 7) no gain of isochromosome 12p; 8) are never admixed with other germ cell tumors; and 9) with the exception of extremely rare cases associated with sarcoma at presentation, have a benign behavior regardless of the presence of vascular or tunical invasion.
Incorrect
Correct Diagnosis: A
Histological Description: The tumor consisted of sheets of neoplastic cells, Cytologically, there were three basic cell types. The predominant cell type was round-intermediate size with eosinophilic cytoplasm and round nuclei with characteristic lacy filamentous chromatin (spiremic pattern). The second type is smaller cells with dark nuclei and scant eosinophilic cytoplasm, while the third type is large mononucleated or multinucleated giant cells. Mitotic activity was brisk. A lymphoplasmacytic and granulomatous infiltrate was absent.Discussion: Spermatocytic tumor was formerly called spermatocytic seminoma with the term classic seminoma used for the typical seminoma. Given that the former has virtually no similarities to usual seminoma, spermatocytic seminoma was renamed spermatocytic tumor. As there is no longer a spermatocytic variant of seminoma, there is no need to use the term “classic seminoma” and currently usual seminoma is just classified as “seminoma”. Spermatocytic tumors usually occur in older males, typically 5th -6th decades, yet uncommonly can be seen in younger men in the 2nd to 4th decades with overlap with seminoma. In contrast to seminoma, spermatocytic tumors: 1) have no primary extra-testicular counterpart; 2) usually lack a lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate; 3) have no associated granulomatous response; 4) have no associated syncitiotrophoblastic giant cells; 5 ) lack germ cell neoplasia in situ yet may have intratubular spermatocytic tumor; 6) OCT4 is negative; 7) no gain of isochromosome 12p; 8) are never admixed with other germ cell tumors; and 9) with the exception of extremely rare cases associated with sarcoma at presentation, have a benign behavior regardless of the presence of vascular or tunical invasion.