Presented by Dr. Pedram Argani and prepared by Dr. Robby Jones.
This is a 56 year old female with primary sclerosing cholangitis who has her gallbladder removed.
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This is a 56 year old female with primary sclerosing cholangitis who has her gallbladder removed.
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C. Superficial lymphoplasmacytic cholecystitis
Histologic Description: This gallbladder demonstrates a diffuse superficial lamina propria infiltrate of lymphocytes and plasma cells. This gallbladder did not contain stones. These are the typical features of the cholecystitis associated with primary sclerosing cholangitis; however, it has been shown that this feature is not entirely specific, as it may be seen with any cause of obstruction of the common bile duct. Primary sclerosing cholangitis is one such cause, but choledocholithiasis or a pancreatic adenocarcinoma obstructing the common bile duct are more common causes in our experience.
Differential Diagnosis: The usual stone-associated cholelithiasis is characteristically inflammation-poor, and predominantly characterized by thickening of the gallbladder musculature. Eosinophilic cholecystitis is defined as a cholecystitis in which eosinophils are out of proportion to other inflammatory cells. Xanthogranulomatous cholecystitis likely results from rupture of Rokitansky-Aschoff sinuses with extrusion of bile that stimulates a florid histiocytic reaction. This reaction may be associated with scarring and clinically mimic a neoplasm.
Incorrect
C. Superficial lymphoplasmacytic cholecystitis
Histologic Description: This gallbladder demonstrates a diffuse superficial lamina propria infiltrate of lymphocytes and plasma cells. This gallbladder did not contain stones. These are the typical features of the cholecystitis associated with primary sclerosing cholangitis; however, it has been shown that this feature is not entirely specific, as it may be seen with any cause of obstruction of the common bile duct. Primary sclerosing cholangitis is one such cause, but choledocholithiasis or a pancreatic adenocarcinoma obstructing the common bile duct are more common causes in our experience.
Differential Diagnosis: The usual stone-associated cholelithiasis is characteristically inflammation-poor, and predominantly characterized by thickening of the gallbladder musculature. Eosinophilic cholecystitis is defined as a cholecystitis in which eosinophils are out of proportion to other inflammatory cells. Xanthogranulomatous cholecystitis likely results from rupture of Rokitansky-Aschoff sinuses with extrusion of bile that stimulates a florid histiocytic reaction. This reaction may be associated with scarring and clinically mimic a neoplasm.
Presented by Dr. Pedram Argani and prepared by Dr. Robby Jones.
This is a 35 year old female with a thyroid nodule.
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This is a 35 year old female with a thyroid nodule.
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Answer: A
Histologic Description: This is a bland oncocytic lesion composed of cells with round nuclei and granular cytoplasm. The lesion is unencapsulated. Focally, the neoplastic cells surround native follicles, falsely creating the appearance of a follicular neoplasm. The lesional cells do not themselves form follicles, and have salt and pepper type neuroendocrine chromatin. This lesion labeled for chromogranin and calcitonin, consistent with medullary thyroid carcinoma.
Differential Diagnosis: Follicular adenoma would not feature the neuroendocrine chromatin of the current lesion, and the cells themselves form follicles. Parathyroid tissue typically features smaller darker nuclei, and a more prominent capillary vasculature than thyroid tissue. Follicular carcinoma is defined as a thyroid follicle forming neoplasm that invades its capsule or blood vessels.
Medullary thyroid carcinoma demonstrates multiple histologic patterns, including pseudopapillary, follicular, giant cell, spindle cell, paraganglioma-like, oncocytic, clear cell, and angiosarcoma-like. The follicular like variant creates confusion with the more common follicular neoplasms of the thyroid.
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Answer: A
Histologic Description: This is a bland oncocytic lesion composed of cells with round nuclei and granular cytoplasm. The lesion is unencapsulated. Focally, the neoplastic cells surround native follicles, falsely creating the appearance of a follicular neoplasm. The lesional cells do not themselves form follicles, and have salt and pepper type neuroendocrine chromatin. This lesion labeled for chromogranin and calcitonin, consistent with medullary thyroid carcinoma.
Differential Diagnosis: Follicular adenoma would not feature the neuroendocrine chromatin of the current lesion, and the cells themselves form follicles. Parathyroid tissue typically features smaller darker nuclei, and a more prominent capillary vasculature than thyroid tissue. Follicular carcinoma is defined as a thyroid follicle forming neoplasm that invades its capsule or blood vessels.
Medullary thyroid carcinoma demonstrates multiple histologic patterns, including pseudopapillary, follicular, giant cell, spindle cell, paraganglioma-like, oncocytic, clear cell, and angiosarcoma-like. The follicular like variant creates confusion with the more common follicular neoplasms of the thyroid.
Presented by Dr. Pedram Argani and prepared by Dr. Robby Jones.
This is a 63 year old male with a retroperitoneal mass.
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This is a 63 year old male with a retroperitoneal mass.
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Answer: B
Histology Description: The dominant appearance of this lesion is that of an inflammation rich process. Scattered between the prominent lymphoid components of the lesion are markedly atypical cells. In the fibrous and adipose tissue away from the lymphoid nodules, one can appreciate similar atypical cells predominantly located in fibrous septa, which is the typical appearance of well differentiated liposarcoma. These atypical cells demonstrated MDM2 labeling, supporting the diagnosis of well differentiated liposarcoma.
Differential Diagnosis: Hodgkin’s lymphoma would label with lymphoid markers such as CD30 and CD15, and would not be associated with the atypical cells in the fibrous tissue surrounding the lymphoid nodules. Sinus histiocytosis with massive lymphadenopathy would also feature S100-positive atypical cells. However, those cells would be negative for MDM2, and would demonstrate emperilopoiesis and more abundant cytoplasm. Sclerosing mesenteritis also feature prominent lymphoid reaction in the mesentery/retroperitoneum; however, it would lack atypical cells in MDM2 labeling of the current case.
Inflammatory liposarcoma is considered a well differentiated liposarcoma (Am J Surg Pathol 1997; 21:884-895).
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Answer: B
Histology Description: The dominant appearance of this lesion is that of an inflammation rich process. Scattered between the prominent lymphoid components of the lesion are markedly atypical cells. In the fibrous and adipose tissue away from the lymphoid nodules, one can appreciate similar atypical cells predominantly located in fibrous septa, which is the typical appearance of well differentiated liposarcoma. These atypical cells demonstrated MDM2 labeling, supporting the diagnosis of well differentiated liposarcoma.
Differential Diagnosis: Hodgkin’s lymphoma would label with lymphoid markers such as CD30 and CD15, and would not be associated with the atypical cells in the fibrous tissue surrounding the lymphoid nodules. Sinus histiocytosis with massive lymphadenopathy would also feature S100-positive atypical cells. However, those cells would be negative for MDM2, and would demonstrate emperilopoiesis and more abundant cytoplasm. Sclerosing mesenteritis also feature prominent lymphoid reaction in the mesentery/retroperitoneum; however, it would lack atypical cells in MDM2 labeling of the current case.
Inflammatory liposarcoma is considered a well differentiated liposarcoma (Am J Surg Pathol 1997; 21:884-895).
Presented by Dr. Jonathan Epstein and prepared by Dr. Robby Jones.
A 70 year old man underwent a radical prostatectomy for a lesion that was restricted in location to the seminal vesicles.
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A 70 year old man underwent a radical prostatectomy for a lesion that was restricted in location to the seminal vesicles.
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C) Malignant mixed epithelial and stromal tumor of the seminal vesicle
Histological Description: A predominantly solid with focal cystic areas replaces the seminal vesicle. The solid areas by mixed epithelioid and spindled pleomorphic cells without specific differentiation. Towards the luminal surface of the cystic areas the lining is composed of seminal vesicle type epithelium as are subjacent small entrapped tubules. Focally, there are polypoid projections of the epithelial and stromal tumor into the cystic spaces.
Discussion: Primary tumors of the seminal vesicles are rare and can only be diagnosed at resection where it is demonstrated that there is no primary site in the prostate, bladder, or adjacent GI tract, as there is nothing specific about the histology of seminal vesicle tumors. Of mesenchymal tumors primary to the seminal vesicles, leiomyosarcoma is the most common. Even poorly differentiated leiomyosarcomas retain a fascicular growth pattern in areas with fascicles appearing in both longitudinal and cross-section. There is a group of spindle cell tumors of the seminal vesicles that have both an epithelial and stromal component that have been variable named in the past but more recently designated as mixed epithelial and stroma tumors, analogous to lesions in the kidney. Roughly 7 cases of low-grade mixed epithelial-stromal tumor primary in the seminal vesicle have been recognized Microscopically, there is a biphasic pattern, sometimes with leaf-like projections. The epithelial component is characterized by variable-sized glandular spaces with a simple cuboidal to columnar lining, which can be flattened in some cysts. There is mild cytological atypia with little to no mitotic activity in the epithelium. Intracytoplasmic pigment as seen in normal seminal vesicle epithelium may be visible. The stromal element is composed of spindle cells which can show focal cytologic atypia, and focal high cellularity with a tendency to condense around distorted glands. Mitotic activity is low, at 0 to 1 per 10 high-power fields or 1-2%. There are only 2 reports of malignant mixed epithelial stromal tumors, as seen in the current case. In high-grade epithelial-stromal tumors, in contrast, the stroma shows overgrowth, cytologic anaplasia, marked cellularity, necrosis, and frequent mitoses. Both high grade mixed epithelial and stromal tumors eventually metastasized.
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C) Malignant mixed epithelial and stromal tumor of the seminal vesicle
Histological Description: A predominantly solid with focal cystic areas replaces the seminal vesicle. The solid areas by mixed epithelioid and spindled pleomorphic cells without specific differentiation. Towards the luminal surface of the cystic areas the lining is composed of seminal vesicle type epithelium as are subjacent small entrapped tubules. Focally, there are polypoid projections of the epithelial and stromal tumor into the cystic spaces.
Discussion: Primary tumors of the seminal vesicles are rare and can only be diagnosed at resection where it is demonstrated that there is no primary site in the prostate, bladder, or adjacent GI tract, as there is nothing specific about the histology of seminal vesicle tumors. Of mesenchymal tumors primary to the seminal vesicles, leiomyosarcoma is the most common. Even poorly differentiated leiomyosarcomas retain a fascicular growth pattern in areas with fascicles appearing in both longitudinal and cross-section. There is a group of spindle cell tumors of the seminal vesicles that have both an epithelial and stromal component that have been variable named in the past but more recently designated as mixed epithelial and stroma tumors, analogous to lesions in the kidney. Roughly 7 cases of low-grade mixed epithelial-stromal tumor primary in the seminal vesicle have been recognized Microscopically, there is a biphasic pattern, sometimes with leaf-like projections. The epithelial component is characterized by variable-sized glandular spaces with a simple cuboidal to columnar lining, which can be flattened in some cysts. There is mild cytological atypia with little to no mitotic activity in the epithelium. Intracytoplasmic pigment as seen in normal seminal vesicle epithelium may be visible. The stromal element is composed of spindle cells which can show focal cytologic atypia, and focal high cellularity with a tendency to condense around distorted glands. Mitotic activity is low, at 0 to 1 per 10 high-power fields or 1-2%. There are only 2 reports of malignant mixed epithelial stromal tumors, as seen in the current case. In high-grade epithelial-stromal tumors, in contrast, the stroma shows overgrowth, cytologic anaplasia, marked cellularity, necrosis, and frequent mitoses. Both high grade mixed epithelial and stromal tumors eventually metastasized.
Presented by Dr. Jonathan Epstein and prepared by Dr. Robby Jones.
A 50 year old woman with a neurogenic bladder presented with hematuria and was biopsied.
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A 50 year old woman with a neurogenic bladder presented with hematuria and was biopsied.
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B. Intestinal metaplasia with high grade dysplasia
Histological Description: Many of the fragments show glands near the surface urothelium with cystitis glandularis of the usual type. In addition, there are many glands lined with goblet cells with bland basally situated small round nuclei. Some of these glands are associated with acellular mucinous pools and focally involve the muscularis propria. A few glands have diminished goblet cells where the nuclei are more cytologically atypical and have lost their basal orientation.
Discussion: Intestinal metaplasia is an unusual variant of cystitis glandularis and is identical to colonic type glands. It can make a tumor-like mass clinically and biopsied to rule out carcinoma. There are several features that can be seen within intestinal metaplasia that are histologically worrisome for carcinoma although has no prognostic significance. Acellular mucinous pools are common yet as long as the pools are not lined by cytologically atypical epithelium they are totally benign. Less commonly, glands of intestinal metaplasia can be seen in the muscularis propria but again does not mean they are malignant. Intestinal metaplasia, although mimicking carcinoma clinically and histologically, is not associated with an increased risk of concurrent or subsequent carcinoma. Rarely, glands of intestinal metaplasia can have high grade dysplasia, analogous to what is seen in the GI tract, where there is an increased risk of cancer. In these cases, the clinicians should be encouraged to resect the entire lesion to rule out concurrent invasive carcinoma.
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B. Intestinal metaplasia with high grade dysplasia
Histological Description: Many of the fragments show glands near the surface urothelium with cystitis glandularis of the usual type. In addition, there are many glands lined with goblet cells with bland basally situated small round nuclei. Some of these glands are associated with acellular mucinous pools and focally involve the muscularis propria. A few glands have diminished goblet cells where the nuclei are more cytologically atypical and have lost their basal orientation.
Discussion: Intestinal metaplasia is an unusual variant of cystitis glandularis and is identical to colonic type glands. It can make a tumor-like mass clinically and biopsied to rule out carcinoma. There are several features that can be seen within intestinal metaplasia that are histologically worrisome for carcinoma although has no prognostic significance. Acellular mucinous pools are common yet as long as the pools are not lined by cytologically atypical epithelium they are totally benign. Less commonly, glands of intestinal metaplasia can be seen in the muscularis propria but again does not mean they are malignant. Intestinal metaplasia, although mimicking carcinoma clinically and histologically, is not associated with an increased risk of concurrent or subsequent carcinoma. Rarely, glands of intestinal metaplasia can have high grade dysplasia, analogous to what is seen in the GI tract, where there is an increased risk of cancer. In these cases, the clinicians should be encouraged to resect the entire lesion to rule out concurrent invasive carcinoma.
Presented by Dr. Jonathan Epstein and prepared by Dr. Robby Jones.
A 12 year old female was noted to have a bladder mass.
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A 12 year old female was noted to have a bladder mass.
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C. Botryroides rhabdomyosarcoma
Histological Description: The transurethral resections consists of multiple polypoid fragments lined by unremarkable urothelium. Immediately beneath the urothelium is a condensed layer of small spindle cells with relatively uniform small ovoid but hyperchromatic nuclei with occasional mitotic figures. Deeper within the polypoid fragments are similar cells that are more loosely arranged in a myxoid stroma.
Discussion: In a child or adolescent, one should always have rhabdomyosarcoma at the top of the differential diagnosis with a spindle cell tumor. Although much more common in children, embryonal rhabdomyosarcomas can also be seen in the bladder in adults. The condensed layers of spindle cells underneath the mucosa is termed a cambium layer and is classic for botryoides rhabdomyosarcoma which has the appearance at cystoscopy of a bunch of grade. In some cases one can more readily see on the H&E cells with abundant eccentric pink cytoplasm and even occasionally cells with cross striations typical of skeletal muscle differentiation. In this case, these cells are lacking and it would be reasonable to confirm the diagnosis with immunohistochemistry for myogenin. This variant of rhabdomyosarcoma has a relatively favorable prognosis in part due to the tumor growing towards the lumen as opposed to down into the muscularis propria with a resulting lower pathological stage. Polypoid cystitis would not have spindle cells and would have associated inflammation. Fibroepithelial polyps can occur in children but have hypocellular dense fibrosis and not hypercellular and myxoid stroma.
Incorrect
C. Botryroides rhabdomyosarcoma
Histological Description: The transurethral resections consists of multiple polypoid fragments lined by unremarkable urothelium. Immediately beneath the urothelium is a condensed layer of small spindle cells with relatively uniform small ovoid but hyperchromatic nuclei with occasional mitotic figures. Deeper within the polypoid fragments are similar cells that are more loosely arranged in a myxoid stroma.
Discussion: In a child or adolescent, one should always have rhabdomyosarcoma at the top of the differential diagnosis with a spindle cell tumor. Although much more common in children, embryonal rhabdomyosarcomas can also be seen in the bladder in adults. The condensed layers of spindle cells underneath the mucosa is termed a cambium layer and is classic for botryoides rhabdomyosarcoma which has the appearance at cystoscopy of a bunch of grade. In some cases one can more readily see on the H&E cells with abundant eccentric pink cytoplasm and even occasionally cells with cross striations typical of skeletal muscle differentiation. In this case, these cells are lacking and it would be reasonable to confirm the diagnosis with immunohistochemistry for myogenin. This variant of rhabdomyosarcoma has a relatively favorable prognosis in part due to the tumor growing towards the lumen as opposed to down into the muscularis propria with a resulting lower pathological stage. Polypoid cystitis would not have spindle cells and would have associated inflammation. Fibroepithelial polyps can occur in children but have hypocellular dense fibrosis and not hypercellular and myxoid stroma.
Presented by Dr. Pedram Argani and prepared by Dr. Robby Jones
This is a 20 year old male with a renal tumor.
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This is a 20 year old male with a renal tumor.
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D. Succinate dehydrogenase deficient renal cell carcinoma
Histologic Description: This is a difficult to classify oncocytic neoplasm. There are focal areas of calcification suggestive of the MiT family translocation carcinoma. Well-developed cell vacuolization is not present, and neither are cytoplasmic inclusions. By immunohistochemistry, this neoplasm demonstrates loss of SDHB, supporting the diagnosis of SDH-deficient RCC. Fumarate hydratase immunostaining was intact, and no evidence of TFE3 rearrangement was identified by break-apart FISH.
Differential Diagnosis: Oncocytoma would have a more nested pattern, edematous stroma, and round nuclei throughout. Xp11 translocation RCC would almost always demonstrate rearrangement of TFE3 by FISH. Fumarate hydratase deficient RCC shows loss of fumarate hydratase protein by immunohistochemistry, and typically shows more prominent nucleoli.
This case illustrates the phenomenon which we have recently reported; specifically, that SDH-deficient RCC in young patients frequently do not demonstrate the characteristic morphologic features that have been described such as cytoplasmic vacuolization and inclusions. We have a low threshold for ordering SDHB and fumarate hydratase immunostains in this setting (Li Y et al. Histopathology 2018; 72:588-60).
Incorrect
D. Succinate dehydrogenase deficient renal cell carcinoma
Histologic Description: This is a difficult to classify oncocytic neoplasm. There are focal areas of calcification suggestive of the MiT family translocation carcinoma. Well-developed cell vacuolization is not present, and neither are cytoplasmic inclusions. By immunohistochemistry, this neoplasm demonstrates loss of SDHB, supporting the diagnosis of SDH-deficient RCC. Fumarate hydratase immunostaining was intact, and no evidence of TFE3 rearrangement was identified by break-apart FISH.
Differential Diagnosis: Oncocytoma would have a more nested pattern, edematous stroma, and round nuclei throughout. Xp11 translocation RCC would almost always demonstrate rearrangement of TFE3 by FISH. Fumarate hydratase deficient RCC shows loss of fumarate hydratase protein by immunohistochemistry, and typically shows more prominent nucleoli.
This case illustrates the phenomenon which we have recently reported; specifically, that SDH-deficient RCC in young patients frequently do not demonstrate the characteristic morphologic features that have been described such as cytoplasmic vacuolization and inclusions. We have a low threshold for ordering SDHB and fumarate hydratase immunostains in this setting (Li Y et al. Histopathology 2018; 72:588-60).
Presented by Dr. Pedram Argani and prepared by Dr. Robby Jones.
This is a 62 year old female with a breast mass.
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This is a 62 year old female with a breast mass.
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D. Malignant phyllodes tumor
Histologic Description: Most of the sections of this case demonstrate a highly pleomorphic, mitotically active, malignant spindle cell neoplasm. There is no epithelial component. The clue to the diagnosis comes from additional sections, demonstrating an associated lower grade phyllodes tumor component with associated epithelium demonstrating an intracanalicular pattern. By immunohistochemistry, this neoplasm was negative for high molecular cytokeratin, and demonstrated focal immunoreactivity for CD34.
Differential Diagnosis: Sarcomatoid carcinoma would label for cytokeratins, and frequently would demonstrate an associated epithelial component. Fibromatosis would lack the pleomorphism and mitotic activity of the current case. Malignant melanoma would demonstrate diffuse immunoreactivity for S100, along with immunoreactivity for melanocytic markers.
This case highlights the importance of thorough sectioning in establishing at the diagnosis of a malignant spindle cell breast tumor.
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D. Malignant phyllodes tumor
Histologic Description: Most of the sections of this case demonstrate a highly pleomorphic, mitotically active, malignant spindle cell neoplasm. There is no epithelial component. The clue to the diagnosis comes from additional sections, demonstrating an associated lower grade phyllodes tumor component with associated epithelium demonstrating an intracanalicular pattern. By immunohistochemistry, this neoplasm was negative for high molecular cytokeratin, and demonstrated focal immunoreactivity for CD34.
Differential Diagnosis: Sarcomatoid carcinoma would label for cytokeratins, and frequently would demonstrate an associated epithelial component. Fibromatosis would lack the pleomorphism and mitotic activity of the current case. Malignant melanoma would demonstrate diffuse immunoreactivity for S100, along with immunoreactivity for melanocytic markers.
This case highlights the importance of thorough sectioning in establishing at the diagnosis of a malignant spindle cell breast tumor.
Presented by Dr. Jonathan Epstein and prepared by Dr. Robby Jones.
A 60 year old man underwent an orchiectomy for a 6 cm solid, focally necrotic testicular mass.
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A 60 year old man underwent an orchiectomy for a 6 cm solid, focally necrotic testicular mass.
Choose the correct diagnosis:
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C. Malignant Leydig cell tumor
Histological description: The testis is involved by a multinodular lesion composed of solid sheets of cells with abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm. Nuclei are relatively uniform with a central prominent nucleus and readily identifiable mitotic figures. The lesion invades the rete testis. Focally, the tumor has a dimorphic pattern with the additional finding of cells with scant cytoplasm and nuclei with prominent grooves.
Discussion: One can have massive Leydig cell hyperplasia mimicking a Leydig cell tumor, especially in adrenogenital syndrome. The difference is that with hyperplasia, the Leydig nodules have intervening uninvolved testicular parenchyma as opposed to a solid Leydig cell tumor and are often bilateral. Also Leydig cell hyperplasia would lack any atypical features. Features seen more frequently in malignant as opposed to benign Leydig cell tumors are: 1) size >5 cm.; 2) >3 mitosis per 10 HPF; 3) necrosis; 4) vascular invasion; 5) widespread infiltration (minimal infiltration into the adjacent testis can be seen in benign Leydig cell tumors); and 6) pleomorphism (not very pleomorphic but more hyperchromatic nuclei with some variation in shape). Most malignant tumors have 3 or more of these atypical features. The current case with large size, necrosis, numerous mitotic figures, and infiltration warrants the diagnosis of a malignant Leydig cell tumor. In cases with only 1-2 atypical features, the diagnosis of an “atypical Leydig cell tumor” is rendered with the recommendation for close follow-up. This case is very rare as there is also the component of a Granulosa cell tumor, which when present in the testis is usually seen as a pure Granulosa cell tumor. In this case, the Granulosa cell component would not affect the prognosis. Immunohistochemically, Leydig cell tumors most frequently express inhibin and Steroid Factor 1 (SF1), although their close resemblance to normal Leydig cells usually obviates the need for special stains.
Incorrect
C. Malignant Leydig cell tumor
Histological description: The testis is involved by a multinodular lesion composed of solid sheets of cells with abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm. Nuclei are relatively uniform with a central prominent nucleus and readily identifiable mitotic figures. The lesion invades the rete testis. Focally, the tumor has a dimorphic pattern with the additional finding of cells with scant cytoplasm and nuclei with prominent grooves.
Discussion: One can have massive Leydig cell hyperplasia mimicking a Leydig cell tumor, especially in adrenogenital syndrome. The difference is that with hyperplasia, the Leydig nodules have intervening uninvolved testicular parenchyma as opposed to a solid Leydig cell tumor and are often bilateral. Also Leydig cell hyperplasia would lack any atypical features. Features seen more frequently in malignant as opposed to benign Leydig cell tumors are: 1) size >5 cm.; 2) >3 mitosis per 10 HPF; 3) necrosis; 4) vascular invasion; 5) widespread infiltration (minimal infiltration into the adjacent testis can be seen in benign Leydig cell tumors); and 6) pleomorphism (not very pleomorphic but more hyperchromatic nuclei with some variation in shape). Most malignant tumors have 3 or more of these atypical features. The current case with large size, necrosis, numerous mitotic figures, and infiltration warrants the diagnosis of a malignant Leydig cell tumor. In cases with only 1-2 atypical features, the diagnosis of an “atypical Leydig cell tumor” is rendered with the recommendation for close follow-up. This case is very rare as there is also the component of a Granulosa cell tumor, which when present in the testis is usually seen as a pure Granulosa cell tumor. In this case, the Granulosa cell component would not affect the prognosis. Immunohistochemically, Leydig cell tumors most frequently express inhibin and Steroid Factor 1 (SF1), although their close resemblance to normal Leydig cells usually obviates the need for special stains.
Presented by Dr. Jonathan Epstein and prepared by Dr. Robby Jones.
A 70 year old man underwent excision of a paratesticular tumor.
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A 70 year old man underwent excision of a paratesticular tumor.
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B. Spindle cell rhabdomyosarcoma
Histological Description: The tumor is a polypoid spindle cell tumor covered by a simple bland cuboidal lining. In areas, there is condensation of the spindle cells beneath the lining. The spindle cells are arranged in short fascicles with scant cytoplasm. The nuclei are uniform without a lot of pleomorphism, yet have frequent mitotic figures.
Discussion: Synovial sarcoma does not occur in this site. The epithelial lining over the spindle cell tumor is the mesothelial lining of the tunica albuginea. In biphasic synovial sarcoma, the epithelial component is cytologically malignant as opposed to the benign appearing epithelium overlying the tumor in this case. The most common paratesticular soft tissue tumors in adults are well-differentiated liposarcoma, which not infrequently can have de-differentiation, followed by leiomyosarcoma. De-differentiated liposarcoma consists of typically high grade spindle cells arranged in a haphazard growth pattern associated with a well-differentiated lipoma-like liposarcoma component. Paratesticular leiomyosarcoma, as with leiomyosarcomas elsewhere, are composed of intersecting long fascicles of spindle cells with abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm, different from what is seen in this case. Another paratesticular spindle cell tumor that must be considered is rhabdomyosarcoma. Rhabdomyosarcoma is the most common paratesticular mesenchymal tumor in children, but also can rarely be seen in adults. The majority of paratesticular rhabdomyosarcomas are embryonal subtype where one can often see overt skeletal muscle differentiation with cells having eccentric eosinophilic tails and even well-developed cross striations on occasion. Paratesticular spindle cell rhabdomyosarcoma usually seen in children is less common. The finding of a paratesticular spindle cell rhabdomyosarcoma in an adult is very rare, only described in a few cases. The prognosis of spindle cell rhabdomyosarcoma is excellent, with over a cure rate over 90%. Paratesticular rhabdomyosarcomas in general also have an excellent prognosis, better than in other anatomical sites. A pitfall with the diagnosis of spindle cell rhabdomyosarcoma, as was present in the current case, is that myogenin may be only focally positive.
Incorrect
B. Spindle cell rhabdomyosarcoma
Histological Description: The tumor is a polypoid spindle cell tumor covered by a simple bland cuboidal lining. In areas, there is condensation of the spindle cells beneath the lining. The spindle cells are arranged in short fascicles with scant cytoplasm. The nuclei are uniform without a lot of pleomorphism, yet have frequent mitotic figures.
Discussion: Synovial sarcoma does not occur in this site. The epithelial lining over the spindle cell tumor is the mesothelial lining of the tunica albuginea. In biphasic synovial sarcoma, the epithelial component is cytologically malignant as opposed to the benign appearing epithelium overlying the tumor in this case. The most common paratesticular soft tissue tumors in adults are well-differentiated liposarcoma, which not infrequently can have de-differentiation, followed by leiomyosarcoma. De-differentiated liposarcoma consists of typically high grade spindle cells arranged in a haphazard growth pattern associated with a well-differentiated lipoma-like liposarcoma component. Paratesticular leiomyosarcoma, as with leiomyosarcomas elsewhere, are composed of intersecting long fascicles of spindle cells with abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm, different from what is seen in this case. Another paratesticular spindle cell tumor that must be considered is rhabdomyosarcoma. Rhabdomyosarcoma is the most common paratesticular mesenchymal tumor in children, but also can rarely be seen in adults. The majority of paratesticular rhabdomyosarcomas are embryonal subtype where one can often see overt skeletal muscle differentiation with cells having eccentric eosinophilic tails and even well-developed cross striations on occasion. Paratesticular spindle cell rhabdomyosarcoma usually seen in children is less common. The finding of a paratesticular spindle cell rhabdomyosarcoma in an adult is very rare, only described in a few cases. The prognosis of spindle cell rhabdomyosarcoma is excellent, with over a cure rate over 90%. Paratesticular rhabdomyosarcomas in general also have an excellent prognosis, better than in other anatomical sites. A pitfall with the diagnosis of spindle cell rhabdomyosarcoma, as was present in the current case, is that myogenin may be only focally positive.
Presented by Dr. Jonathan Epstein and prepared by Dr. Robby Jones.
A 65 year old woman underwent a transurethral resection for a bladder mass.
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Clinical History: A 65 year old woman underwent a transurethral resection for a bladder mass. The tumor was positive for Gross Cystic Duct Fluid Protein (GCDFP), progesterone receptor (PR), GATA3, uroplakin II with negative staining for estrogen receptor (ER). Some of the cells with signet-ring cell vacuoles were positive for mucicarmine.
Choose the correct diagnosis:
Correct
D. Infiltrating plasmacytoid urothelial carcinoma
Histological Description: The tumor consists of infiltrating cells with variable cytology. Many of the cells have eccentric cytoplasm which is amphophilic, resembling plasma cells. However, the nuclei have a single small central nucleolus as opposed to the more stippled chromatin in plasma cells. Some cells have clear cytoplasmic vacuoles with a signet-ring cell appearance. Other cells have central uniform nuclei with a scant ring of amphophilic cytoplasm similar to the cells in lobular carcinoma of the breast. No in situ urothelial carcinoma component is noted.
Discussion: This tumor is typical of plasmacytoid urothelial carcinoma. Other cases, in addition to cells with plasmacytoid morphology, may have signet-ring cells, cells resembling lobular carcinoma of the breast, and cells with a rhabdoid appearance. The unifying feature in plasmacytoid urothelial carcinoma is the dyscohesive nature of the cells which is also manifested by loss of e-cadherin immunohistochemically similar to what is seen with lobular carcinoma of the breast and signet-ring cell adenocarcinoma from the gastrointestinal tract. In a woman, plasmacytoid urothelial carcinoma must be differentiated from metastatic lobular carcinoma of the breast and metastatic signet ring cell adenocarcinoma from the gastrointestinal tract, if there is no associated more definitive urothelial component (ie CIS or papillary urothelial carcinoma). We have recently shown the plasmacytoid urothelial carcinoma can express GCDFP and PR, mimicking lobular carcinoma. GATA3 is not helpful in this differential as it is positive in both breast and urothelial carcinoma. The two useful immunohistochemical stains for this differential diagnosis are ER, which is negative in plasmacytoid urothelial carcinoma and almost uniformly positive in lobular carcinoma, as well as uroplakin II, which is positive in 50% of plasmacytoid urothelial carcinomas and negative in lobular carcinoma. GATA3 positivity, present in almost all plasmacytoid urothelial carcinomas, is negative in signet-ring cell adenocarcinoma from the stomach. Plasmacytoid urothelial carcinoma is a very aggressive variant of urothelial carcinoma with a predilection for spreading within the peritoneal cavity.
Incorrect
D. Infiltrating plasmacytoid urothelial carcinoma
Histological Description: The tumor consists of infiltrating cells with variable cytology. Many of the cells have eccentric cytoplasm which is amphophilic, resembling plasma cells. However, the nuclei have a single small central nucleolus as opposed to the more stippled chromatin in plasma cells. Some cells have clear cytoplasmic vacuoles with a signet-ring cell appearance. Other cells have central uniform nuclei with a scant ring of amphophilic cytoplasm similar to the cells in lobular carcinoma of the breast. No in situ urothelial carcinoma component is noted.
Discussion: This tumor is typical of plasmacytoid urothelial carcinoma. Other cases, in addition to cells with plasmacytoid morphology, may have signet-ring cells, cells resembling lobular carcinoma of the breast, and cells with a rhabdoid appearance. The unifying feature in plasmacytoid urothelial carcinoma is the dyscohesive nature of the cells which is also manifested by loss of e-cadherin immunohistochemically similar to what is seen with lobular carcinoma of the breast and signet-ring cell adenocarcinoma from the gastrointestinal tract. In a woman, plasmacytoid urothelial carcinoma must be differentiated from metastatic lobular carcinoma of the breast and metastatic signet ring cell adenocarcinoma from the gastrointestinal tract, if there is no associated more definitive urothelial component (ie CIS or papillary urothelial carcinoma). We have recently shown the plasmacytoid urothelial carcinoma can express GCDFP and PR, mimicking lobular carcinoma. GATA3 is not helpful in this differential as it is positive in both breast and urothelial carcinoma. The two useful immunohistochemical stains for this differential diagnosis are ER, which is negative in plasmacytoid urothelial carcinoma and almost uniformly positive in lobular carcinoma, as well as uroplakin II, which is positive in 50% of plasmacytoid urothelial carcinomas and negative in lobular carcinoma. GATA3 positivity, present in almost all plasmacytoid urothelial carcinomas, is negative in signet-ring cell adenocarcinoma from the stomach. Plasmacytoid urothelial carcinoma is a very aggressive variant of urothelial carcinoma with a predilection for spreading within the peritoneal cavity.
Presented by Dr. Lisa Rooper and prepared by Dr. Robert Jones
The patient is a 80 year old male with a nasal mass.
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The patient is a 80 year old male with a nasal mass.
Correct
(C) Sinonasal glomangiopericytoma
Histology: The surface epithelium is intact with squamous metaplasia. The underlying tumor consists of a hypercellular proliferation of spindled to epithelioid cells in short fascicles and whorls. The nuclei are oval to elongated with uniform chromatin and only rare mitotic figures. The tumor contains prominent blood vessels with marked hyalinization of the vessel walls. Immunostains show that the tumor cells are positive for nuclear b-catenin, SMA and Factor XIIIa and negative for CD34, supporting a diagnosis of sinonasal glomangiopericytoma.
Discussion: Sinonasal glomangiopericytoma was previously known as sinonasal hemangiopericytoma and hemangiopericytoma-like tumor of the sinonasal tract. However, these names are misleading because glomangiopericytomas are not truly part of the solitary fibrous tumor/ hemangiopericytoma spectrum of tumors, and lack their characteristic CD34 positivity, NAB2-STAT6 translocations, and unpredictable behavior. Instead, glomangiopericytoma is thought to originate from pericytic cells, as is evidenced by its positivity for SMA and Factor XIIIa. Recently, glomangiopericytoma has been shown to have consistent CTNNB1 gene mutations, leading to its characteristic diffuse nuclear positivity for b-catenin by immunohistochemistry (Lasota et. al, Mod Pathol 2015). Glomangiopericytoma generally behaves in an indolent fashion.
Incorrect
(C) Sinonasal glomangiopericytoma
Histology: The surface epithelium is intact with squamous metaplasia. The underlying tumor consists of a hypercellular proliferation of spindled to epithelioid cells in short fascicles and whorls. The nuclei are oval to elongated with uniform chromatin and only rare mitotic figures. The tumor contains prominent blood vessels with marked hyalinization of the vessel walls. Immunostains show that the tumor cells are positive for nuclear b-catenin, SMA and Factor XIIIa and negative for CD34, supporting a diagnosis of sinonasal glomangiopericytoma.
Discussion: Sinonasal glomangiopericytoma was previously known as sinonasal hemangiopericytoma and hemangiopericytoma-like tumor of the sinonasal tract. However, these names are misleading because glomangiopericytomas are not truly part of the solitary fibrous tumor/ hemangiopericytoma spectrum of tumors, and lack their characteristic CD34 positivity, NAB2-STAT6 translocations, and unpredictable behavior. Instead, glomangiopericytoma is thought to originate from pericytic cells, as is evidenced by its positivity for SMA and Factor XIIIa. Recently, glomangiopericytoma has been shown to have consistent CTNNB1 gene mutations, leading to its characteristic diffuse nuclear positivity for b-catenin by immunohistochemistry (Lasota et. al, Mod Pathol 2015). Glomangiopericytoma generally behaves in an indolent fashion.
Presented by Dr. Lisa Rooper and prepared by Dr. Robert Jones
The patient is a 55 year old female with an expansile mandible lesion
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The patient is a 55 year old female with an expansile mandible lesion.
Correct
(B) Calcifying Odontogenic Cyst
Histology: The lesion is cystic and is lined by a proliferation of epithelial cells with ameloblastic features, including a basal layer of palisaded columnar cells and an associated area of stellate-reticulum-like spindled cells with intracellular edema. Interspersed throughout the epithelium are large epithelioid cells with abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm and loss of nuclear basophilia, consistent with ghost cells. There are also coarse calcifications. This appearance is diagnostic of a calcifying odontogenic cyst.
Discussion: A wide range of developmental, reactive, and neoplastic odontogenic cysts can arise within the jaw. In general, odontogenic keratocysts (OKCs) and ameloblastomas are the most important types of odontogenic cyst to recognize because they carry a high risk of recurrence. OKCs have an epithelium 5-7 cells thick with basal palisading and a surface layer of corrugated parakeratin- features that are not seen in calcifying odontogenic cyst. Ameloblastomas share the ameloblastic epithelium of calcifying odontogenic cyst but should entirely lack ghost cell formation. Calcifying odontogenic cysts are relatively uncommon, comprising <1% of jaw cysts. They are generally cured with complete excision although they can recur.
Incorrect
(B) Calcifying Odontogenic Cyst
Histology: The lesion is cystic and is lined by a proliferation of epithelial cells with ameloblastic features, including a basal layer of palisaded columnar cells and an associated area of stellate-reticulum-like spindled cells with intracellular edema. Interspersed throughout the epithelium are large epithelioid cells with abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm and loss of nuclear basophilia, consistent with ghost cells. There are also coarse calcifications. This appearance is diagnostic of a calcifying odontogenic cyst.
Discussion: A wide range of developmental, reactive, and neoplastic odontogenic cysts can arise within the jaw. In general, odontogenic keratocysts (OKCs) and ameloblastomas are the most important types of odontogenic cyst to recognize because they carry a high risk of recurrence. OKCs have an epithelium 5-7 cells thick with basal palisading and a surface layer of corrugated parakeratin- features that are not seen in calcifying odontogenic cyst. Ameloblastomas share the ameloblastic epithelium of calcifying odontogenic cyst but should entirely lack ghost cell formation. Calcifying odontogenic cysts are relatively uncommon, comprising <1% of jaw cysts. They are generally cured with complete excision although they can recur.
Presented by Dr. Lisa Rooper and prepared by Dr. Robby Jones
The patient is a 75 year old male with a polypoid pharyngeal mass
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The patient is a 75 year old male with a polypoid pharyngeal mass.
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(A) Well-differentiated liposarcoma
Histology: The tumor consists of a largely bland proliferation of adipocytes with intermixed fibrous septae. The tumor underlies benign squamous mucosa and entraps benign skeletal muscle cells. Scattered throughout the fibrous septae are spindled cells with nuclear hyperchromasia and irregular nuclear membranes. An immunostain for MDM2 is positive in these spindled cells. Fluorescence in-situ hybridization also confirms the presence of MDM2 amplification. These findings support a diagnosis of well-differentiated liposarcoma.
Discussion: Fatty lesions of the pharynx and upper esophagus have traditionally been referred to as lipomas or giant fibrovascular polyps. However, there have been persistent reports of well-differentiated liposarcomas arising in association with these lesions. Recently, molecular analysis has highlighted the presence of MDM2 amplification in the vast majority of fatty tumors at this site regardless of previous classification (Graham et. al, Mod Pathol 2018), suggesting that most might be better classified as well-differentiated liposarcomas. In the absence of de-differentiation, the vast majority of patients with these tumors do well if they are excised completely.
Incorrect
(A) Well-differentiated liposarcoma
Histology: The tumor consists of a largely bland proliferation of adipocytes with intermixed fibrous septae. The tumor underlies benign squamous mucosa and entraps benign skeletal muscle cells. Scattered throughout the fibrous septae are spindled cells with nuclear hyperchromasia and irregular nuclear membranes. An immunostain for MDM2 is positive in these spindled cells. Fluorescence in-situ hybridization also confirms the presence of MDM2 amplification. These findings support a diagnosis of well-differentiated liposarcoma.
Discussion: Fatty lesions of the pharynx and upper esophagus have traditionally been referred to as lipomas or giant fibrovascular polyps. However, there have been persistent reports of well-differentiated liposarcomas arising in association with these lesions. Recently, molecular analysis has highlighted the presence of MDM2 amplification in the vast majority of fatty tumors at this site regardless of previous classification (Graham et. al, Mod Pathol 2018), suggesting that most might be better classified as well-differentiated liposarcomas. In the absence of de-differentiation, the vast majority of patients with these tumors do well if they are excised completely.
Histology: Nests of urothelium extending into the lamina propria. Urothelial cells show mild to moderate nuclear atypia. The background stroma shows hemorrhage, dilated vascular spaces, fibrin deposition, edema and inflammation.
Discussion: Pseudocarcinomatous urothelial hyperplasia can be associated to prior radiation or chemotherapy or the result of poor circulation. The main differential diagnosis is invasive urothelial carcinoma. The distinction can be made by identifying changes to the background stroma that include ectatic blood vessels, fibrin deposition, hemorrhage and hemosiderin deposition and inflammation. The lesion is in general small but occasionally can involve the lamina propria extensively but never the muscularis propria (detrusor muscle).
Histology: Nests of urothelium extending into the lamina propria. Urothelial cells show mild to moderate nuclear atypia. The background stroma shows hemorrhage, dilated vascular spaces, fibrin deposition, edema and inflammation.
Discussion: Pseudocarcinomatous urothelial hyperplasia can be associated to prior radiation or chemotherapy or the result of poor circulation. The main differential diagnosis is invasive urothelial carcinoma. The distinction can be made by identifying changes to the background stroma that include ectatic blood vessels, fibrin deposition, hemorrhage and hemosiderin deposition and inflammation. The lesion is in general small but occasionally can involve the lamina propria extensively but never the muscularis propria (detrusor muscle).
Presented by Dr. Andres Matoso and prepared by Dr. Robby Jones
This is a 68 year-old male with a urethral polyp.
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This is a 68 year-old male with a urethral polyp. Choose the correct diagnosis.
Correct
Answer: 3. Adenocarcinoma with papillary features
Histology: Exophytic papillary and cribriform intraurethral lesion. The epithelial lining is characterized by pseudostratified epithelial cells with highly atypical nuclei, numerous apoptotic bodies and areas of necrosis. There is no evidence of invasion into the stroma.
Discussion: Urethral lesions with glandular differentiation are rare. The differential diagnosis includes prostatic duct adenocarcinoma, urothelial carcinoma with glandular differentiation, primary adenocarcinoma of the urethra originating from urethritis cystica glandularis with intestinal metaplasia and spread from a colorectal adenocarcinoma. Immunohistochemistry for prostate markers (NKX3.1, prostein, PSA) can help confirm a prostatic ductal adenocarcinoma. Immunohistochemistry is usually not helpful when trying to differentiate an adenocarcinoma primary to the urethra versus a spread from colorectal carcinoma as they are both usually positive for CDX2 and negative for urothelial markers. Colorectal carcinomas can colonize the surface and mimic a non-invasive polyp. When making a diagnosis of a urethral adenocarcinoma with intestinal differentiation a note should be made that a gastrointestinal primary should be excluded clinically.
Incorrect
Answer: 3. Adenocarcinoma with papillary features
Histology: Exophytic papillary and cribriform intraurethral lesion. The epithelial lining is characterized by pseudostratified epithelial cells with highly atypical nuclei, numerous apoptotic bodies and areas of necrosis. There is no evidence of invasion into the stroma.
Discussion: Urethral lesions with glandular differentiation are rare. The differential diagnosis includes prostatic duct adenocarcinoma, urothelial carcinoma with glandular differentiation, primary adenocarcinoma of the urethra originating from urethritis cystica glandularis with intestinal metaplasia and spread from a colorectal adenocarcinoma. Immunohistochemistry for prostate markers (NKX3.1, prostein, PSA) can help confirm a prostatic ductal adenocarcinoma. Immunohistochemistry is usually not helpful when trying to differentiate an adenocarcinoma primary to the urethra versus a spread from colorectal carcinoma as they are both usually positive for CDX2 and negative for urothelial markers. Colorectal carcinomas can colonize the surface and mimic a non-invasive polyp. When making a diagnosis of a urethral adenocarcinoma with intestinal differentiation a note should be made that a gastrointestinal primary should be excluded clinically.
Presented by Dr. Jonathan Epstein and prepared by Dr. Robby Jones.
A 45 year-old female was noted to have a nodule in the uterine cervix and underwent an excisional biopsy.
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A 45 year-old female was noted to have a nodule in the uterine cervix and underwent an excisional biopsy.
Choose the correct diagnosis:
Correct
C. Ectopic prostate glands with squamous metaplasia
Histology: Typical large benign endocervical glands are noted with abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm and a single layer of simple round basally situated nuclei. Adjacent to these glands are smaller more variably sized glands with squamous metaplasia, some of which appears immature and other areas with abundant clear cytoplasm typical of glycogenated squamous metaplasia. At the periphery of these small glands, the cells are low cuboidal with pale cytoplasm and in areas what appeared to be a basal cell layer beneath the overlying cuboidal cells. Some of the cells had a mixture of red-orange and purple cytoplasmic granules consistent with lipofuscin pigment.
Discussion: The glands with squamous metaplasia differ from the adjacent endocervical glands in term of the size, shape, nature of their cytoplasm, and lack of a basal cell layer. If one mentally subtracts the squamous metaplasia, the glands are typical benign prostate glands. Immunohistochemistry was performed showing focal cytoplasmic and luminal staining in the glandular lining diagnostic of ectopic prostate glands with squamous metaplasia. There have been a few cases of ectopic prostate tissue involving the cervix. Possible theories of histogenesis include a developmental anomaly, metaplasia of preexisting endocervical glands, and derivation from mesonephric remnants. Squamous metaplasia of ectopic prostate tissue in the cervix is common and reflects the effect of endogenous female estrogen on the prostate, analogous to what would be seen in the native prostate with exogenous estrogen given to male patients.
Ectopic Prostatic Tissue in the Uterine Cervix and Vagina Report of a Series With a Detailed Immunohistochemical Analysis. Am J Surg Pathol 2006;30:209–215
Incorrect
C. Ectopic prostate glands with squamous metaplasia
Histology: Typical large benign endocervical glands are noted with abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm and a single layer of simple round basally situated nuclei. Adjacent to these glands are smaller more variably sized glands with squamous metaplasia, some of which appears immature and other areas with abundant clear cytoplasm typical of glycogenated squamous metaplasia. At the periphery of these small glands, the cells are low cuboidal with pale cytoplasm and in areas what appeared to be a basal cell layer beneath the overlying cuboidal cells. Some of the cells had a mixture of red-orange and purple cytoplasmic granules consistent with lipofuscin pigment.
Discussion: The glands with squamous metaplasia differ from the adjacent endocervical glands in term of the size, shape, nature of their cytoplasm, and lack of a basal cell layer. If one mentally subtracts the squamous metaplasia, the glands are typical benign prostate glands. Immunohistochemistry was performed showing focal cytoplasmic and luminal staining in the glandular lining diagnostic of ectopic prostate glands with squamous metaplasia. There have been a few cases of ectopic prostate tissue involving the cervix. Possible theories of histogenesis include a developmental anomaly, metaplasia of preexisting endocervical glands, and derivation from mesonephric remnants. Squamous metaplasia of ectopic prostate tissue in the cervix is common and reflects the effect of endogenous female estrogen on the prostate, analogous to what would be seen in the native prostate with exogenous estrogen given to male patients.
Ectopic Prostatic Tissue in the Uterine Cervix and Vagina Report of a Series With a Detailed Immunohistochemical Analysis. Am J Surg Pathol 2006;30:209–215
Presented by Dr. Jonathan Epstein and prepared by Dr. Robby Jones
A 55 year-old female was noted to have a mass adjacent to the kidney involving the renal vein on imaging and underwent a nephrectomy.
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An 55 year-old female was noted to have a mass adjacent to the kidney involving the renal vein on imaging and underwent a nephrectomy.
Choose the correct diagnosis:
Correct
Answer: B. Anastomosing hemangioma
Histology: Filling up and expanding the renal vein is a tumor composed of tightly packed capillary channels with focal anastomosing sinusoidal-like pattern. The tumor had a vaguely lobular architecture with intermixed large areas of loose stromal edema and/or stromal hyalinization between the cellular zones of vascular proliferation. Cytologically, anastomosing hemangiomas lacked cellular atypia, multilayering of endothelial cells, and apoptotic figures or mitotic activity.
Discussion: Montgomery and Epstein first described 6 cases of a new variant of a benign vascular tumor involving the kidneys, perinephric adipose tissue, and testes which they designated anastomosing hemangioma. Subsequently, it has been described in the ovary, soft tissue, and a few other sites. Associated findings in some of anastomosing hemangiomas are extramedullary hematopoiesis, intravascular growth which in the current case was exclusively the site of the tumor, and intracytoplasmic hyaline globules in the endothelial cells. Despite anastomosing hemangioma having focal areas of anastomosing vessels as seen in angiosarcoma and its high celluarity, the lack of atypia, mitotic activity, necrosis, and the presence of a component with well-formed vessels are all consistent with a benign vascular neoplasm.
Anastomosing hemangioma of the genitourinary tract: a lesion mimicking angiosarcoma. Am J Surg Pathol. 2009;33:1364-9.
Anastomosing hemangioma of the genitourinary system: eight cases in the kidney and ovary with immunohistochemical and ultrastructural analysis. Am J Clin Pathol 2011; 136: 450-7.
Incorrect
Answer: B. Anastomosing hemangioma
Histology: Filling up and expanding the renal vein is a tumor composed of tightly packed capillary channels with focal anastomosing sinusoidal-like pattern. The tumor had a vaguely lobular architecture with intermixed large areas of loose stromal edema and/or stromal hyalinization between the cellular zones of vascular proliferation. Cytologically, anastomosing hemangiomas lacked cellular atypia, multilayering of endothelial cells, and apoptotic figures or mitotic activity.
Discussion: Montgomery and Epstein first described 6 cases of a new variant of a benign vascular tumor involving the kidneys, perinephric adipose tissue, and testes which they designated anastomosing hemangioma. Subsequently, it has been described in the ovary, soft tissue, and a few other sites. Associated findings in some of anastomosing hemangiomas are extramedullary hematopoiesis, intravascular growth which in the current case was exclusively the site of the tumor, and intracytoplasmic hyaline globules in the endothelial cells. Despite anastomosing hemangioma having focal areas of anastomosing vessels as seen in angiosarcoma and its high celluarity, the lack of atypia, mitotic activity, necrosis, and the presence of a component with well-formed vessels are all consistent with a benign vascular neoplasm.
Anastomosing hemangioma of the genitourinary tract: a lesion mimicking angiosarcoma. Am J Surg Pathol. 2009;33:1364-9.
Anastomosing hemangioma of the genitourinary system: eight cases in the kidney and ovary with immunohistochemical and ultrastructural analysis. Am J Clin Pathol 2011; 136: 450-7.
Presented by Dr. Jonathan Epstein and prepared by Dr. Robby Jones.
A 45 year-old male presented with a 6.5 cm. testicular mass and underwent a radical orchiectomy.
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A 45 year-old male presented with a 6.5 cm. testicular mass and underwent a radical orchiectomy.
Correct
Malignant leydig cell tumor
Histology: The testis was almost entirely replaced by a tumor consisting of solid sheets of cells with abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm. There was a spectrum of atypia ranging from relatively uniform cells with round uniform nuclei to larger more pleomorphic cells, some multinucleated. Nucleoli were prominent, although mitotic figures were infrequent. Focal necrosis was present along with focal spindling of the tumor cells. Occasional tumor cells had abundant xanthomatous cytoplasm.
Discussion: This tumor does not resemble any of the germ cell tumors. It is not as pleomorphic as embryonal carcinoma which also has some attempt a luminal formation, lacking in the current case. Areas of the tumor with more bland cytology are typical of a Leydig cell tumor. Criteria for malignancy in Leydig cell tumors are: pleomorphism; frequent mitoses (>3/10HPF); atypical mitoses; vascular space invasion; infiltrative edges; necrosis; and size >5 cm. In the current case, the presence of marked cytological atypia, necrosis, and large size would qualify for a malignant leydig cell tumor. Sarcomatoid differentiation in a leydig cell tumor is extremely rare with only a few case report. In the current case, the sarcomatoid features are not fully developed, but some of the tumor cells show a spindle cell morphology which is further diagnostic of a malignant leydig cell tumor.
Sarcomatoid Leydig cell tumor: Histopathology 1995; 27: 578-80
Incorrect
Malignant leydig cell tumor
Histology: The testis was almost entirely replaced by a tumor consisting of solid sheets of cells with abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm. There was a spectrum of atypia ranging from relatively uniform cells with round uniform nuclei to larger more pleomorphic cells, some multinucleated. Nucleoli were prominent, although mitotic figures were infrequent. Focal necrosis was present along with focal spindling of the tumor cells. Occasional tumor cells had abundant xanthomatous cytoplasm.
Discussion: This tumor does not resemble any of the germ cell tumors. It is not as pleomorphic as embryonal carcinoma which also has some attempt a luminal formation, lacking in the current case. Areas of the tumor with more bland cytology are typical of a Leydig cell tumor. Criteria for malignancy in Leydig cell tumors are: pleomorphism; frequent mitoses (>3/10HPF); atypical mitoses; vascular space invasion; infiltrative edges; necrosis; and size >5 cm. In the current case, the presence of marked cytological atypia, necrosis, and large size would qualify for a malignant leydig cell tumor. Sarcomatoid differentiation in a leydig cell tumor is extremely rare with only a few case report. In the current case, the sarcomatoid features are not fully developed, but some of the tumor cells show a spindle cell morphology which is further diagnostic of a malignant leydig cell tumor.
Sarcomatoid Leydig cell tumor: Histopathology 1995; 27: 578-80
Presented by Dr. Andres Matoso and prepared by Dr. Robby Jones.
This is a bladder mass in a 62-year-old woman.
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This is a bladder mass in a 62-year-old woman. Choose the correct diagnosis.
Correct
Answer: Low-grade serous carcinoma from ovary
Histology: The tumor displays a variety of architectural patterns including micropapillary, macropapillary and glandular structures. Tumor cells have fairly uniform nuclei with mild to moderate atypia and the cytoplasm is scant. Psammoma bodies are frequent.
Discussion: Metastatic carcinoma to the bladder is infrequent but its recognition is clinically very important as a misdiagnosis of a primary urothelial carcinoma can lead to a clinically unnecessary radical surgery. The most commonly primary sites of metastatic carcinoma to the bladder include colorectal, cervical, ovary, endometrium, breast and prostate. In the absence of urothelial carcinoma in-situ or a papillary urothelial carcinoma component, the pathologist should have a high level of suspicion to avoid the misdiagnosis. In this particular case, immunohistochemistry for WT1 and PAX8 could aid in the differential diagnosis with urothelial carcinoma.
Incorrect
Answer: Low-grade serous carcinoma from ovary
Histology: The tumor displays a variety of architectural patterns including micropapillary, macropapillary and glandular structures. Tumor cells have fairly uniform nuclei with mild to moderate atypia and the cytoplasm is scant. Psammoma bodies are frequent.
Discussion: Metastatic carcinoma to the bladder is infrequent but its recognition is clinically very important as a misdiagnosis of a primary urothelial carcinoma can lead to a clinically unnecessary radical surgery. The most commonly primary sites of metastatic carcinoma to the bladder include colorectal, cervical, ovary, endometrium, breast and prostate. In the absence of urothelial carcinoma in-situ or a papillary urothelial carcinoma component, the pathologist should have a high level of suspicion to avoid the misdiagnosis. In this particular case, immunohistochemistry for WT1 and PAX8 could aid in the differential diagnosis with urothelial carcinoma.
Histology: Sheets of cells with large pleomorphic nuclei with prominent nucleoli and indistinct cytoplasmic borders and a syncytial appearance with multinucleated cells. There is a prominent inflammatory infiltrate composed predominantly of T and B lymphocytes but with intermixed plasma cells, histiocytes, neutrophils and eosinophils.
Discussion: Lymphoepithelioma-like urothelial carcinoma is more common in men and have been reported in the upper and lower urinary tract and in the ureter, as in this case. Most cases are invasive without an identifiable non-invasive component. If the lymphocytic infiltrate is very prominent, the tumor could be mistaken for a lymphoproliferative process or chronic cystitis. While lymphoepithelioma-like carcinoma of other sites has been associated with EBV infection, there is no relation to EBV in lymphoepithelioma-like urothelial carcinoma. When presented in it’s pure form, it has been suggested to have a favorable prognosis with excellent response to chemotherapy.
References:
Mod Pathol. 2007 Aug;20(8):828-34. Epub 2007 Jun 1.
Virchows Arch. 2001 Jun;438(6):552-7.
Hum Pathol. 2009 Jul;40(7):982-7. doi: 10.1016/j.humpath.2008.12.008. Epub 2009 Mar 9.
Histology: Sheets of cells with large pleomorphic nuclei with prominent nucleoli and indistinct cytoplasmic borders and a syncytial appearance with multinucleated cells. There is a prominent inflammatory infiltrate composed predominantly of T and B lymphocytes but with intermixed plasma cells, histiocytes, neutrophils and eosinophils.
Discussion: Lymphoepithelioma-like urothelial carcinoma is more common in men and have been reported in the upper and lower urinary tract and in the ureter, as in this case. Most cases are invasive without an identifiable non-invasive component. If the lymphocytic infiltrate is very prominent, the tumor could be mistaken for a lymphoproliferative process or chronic cystitis. While lymphoepithelioma-like carcinoma of other sites has been associated with EBV infection, there is no relation to EBV in lymphoepithelioma-like urothelial carcinoma. When presented in it’s pure form, it has been suggested to have a favorable prognosis with excellent response to chemotherapy.
References:
Mod Pathol. 2007 Aug;20(8):828-34. Epub 2007 Jun 1.
Virchows Arch. 2001 Jun;438(6):552-7.
Hum Pathol. 2009 Jul;40(7):982-7. doi: 10.1016/j.humpath.2008.12.008. Epub 2009 Mar 9.
Presented by Dr. Andres Matoso and prepared by Dr. Robby Jones.
This is a bladder mass in a 59-year-old man.
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This is a bladder mass in a 59-year-old man. Choose the correct diagnosis.
Correct
Answer: Condyloma
Histology: Folds of thickened non-keratinizing squamous epithelium with thin fibrovascular cores with no branching. Cytoplasmic clearing and typical changes of koilocytosis can be observed. The nuclear atypia is mild and mitotic activity is virtually absent unless associated with high-grade dysplasia. A combination of exophitic and inverted growth patterns are common.
Discussion: Condylomas involving the urothelium are rare lesions that could happen anywhere in the urinary tract. The clinical presentation is usually hematuria. More common in patients with anogenital condylomas. HPV 6/11 can be detected using in-situ hybridization techniques. High-risk HPV can be positive in cases with areas of high-grade dysplasia. Immunohistochemistry for p16 is positive in areas of high-grade dysplasia but does not help to differentiate condyloma from low-grade papillary urothelial carcinoma. May be associated with invasive squamous cell carcinoma and patients with condylomas have an increased risk of developing squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder. The differential diagnoses include squamous papilloma (negative HPV and no koilocytic changes) and low-grade papillary urothelial carcinoma (no squamous differentiation, complex branching of papillary fronds, no HPV related changes).
Histology: Folds of thickened non-keratinizing squamous epithelium with thin fibrovascular cores with no branching. Cytoplasmic clearing and typical changes of koilocytosis can be observed. The nuclear atypia is mild and mitotic activity is virtually absent unless associated with high-grade dysplasia. A combination of exophitic and inverted growth patterns are common.
Discussion: Condylomas involving the urothelium are rare lesions that could happen anywhere in the urinary tract. The clinical presentation is usually hematuria. More common in patients with anogenital condylomas. HPV 6/11 can be detected using in-situ hybridization techniques. High-risk HPV can be positive in cases with areas of high-grade dysplasia. Immunohistochemistry for p16 is positive in areas of high-grade dysplasia but does not help to differentiate condyloma from low-grade papillary urothelial carcinoma. May be associated with invasive squamous cell carcinoma and patients with condylomas have an increased risk of developing squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder. The differential diagnoses include squamous papilloma (negative HPV and no koilocytic changes) and low-grade papillary urothelial carcinoma (no squamous differentiation, complex branching of papillary fronds, no HPV related changes).
Presented by Dr. Pedram Argani and prepared by Dr. Robert Jones.
Case 3: This is a 64 year old male with an ear canal mass.
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Case 3: This is a 64 year old male with an ear canal mass.
Correct
Answer: B. Ceruminous adenoma
Histologic Description: This is a complex but cytologically bland biphasic neoplasm. While there is extensive sclerosis, one can appreciate biphasic appearance with outer myoepithelial type cells and inner luminal cells. Some of the luminal cells demonstrate the hallmarks of ceruminous epithelium; specifically, eosinophilic cytoplasm with decapitation secretion, and ceroid yellow-brown lipofuscin pigment. These are the typical features of ceruminous adenoma. This lesion, as in this case, typically arises in the outer half of the external auditory canal where the ceruminous sweat glands normally reside.
Differential Diagnosis: Middle ear adenomas have a morphologic appearance resembling tubular carcinoid tumors, and would be expected to label for neuroendocrine markers like chromogranin and synaptophysin. Paragangliomas have nested neuroendocrine type appearance, and would label for neuroendocrine markers but not cytokeratin. Ceruminous adenocarcinomas are defined by greater cytologic atypia, mitosis, and aggressive growth such as perineural invasion.
Reference: Thompson LDR et al Am J Surg Pathol 2004; 28:308-318.
Incorrect
Answer: B. Ceruminous adenoma
Histologic Description: This is a complex but cytologically bland biphasic neoplasm. While there is extensive sclerosis, one can appreciate biphasic appearance with outer myoepithelial type cells and inner luminal cells. Some of the luminal cells demonstrate the hallmarks of ceruminous epithelium; specifically, eosinophilic cytoplasm with decapitation secretion, and ceroid yellow-brown lipofuscin pigment. These are the typical features of ceruminous adenoma. This lesion, as in this case, typically arises in the outer half of the external auditory canal where the ceruminous sweat glands normally reside.
Differential Diagnosis: Middle ear adenomas have a morphologic appearance resembling tubular carcinoid tumors, and would be expected to label for neuroendocrine markers like chromogranin and synaptophysin. Paragangliomas have nested neuroendocrine type appearance, and would label for neuroendocrine markers but not cytokeratin. Ceruminous adenocarcinomas are defined by greater cytologic atypia, mitosis, and aggressive growth such as perineural invasion.
Reference: Thompson LDR et al Am J Surg Pathol 2004; 28:308-318.
Presented by Dr. Pedram Argani and prepared by Dr. Robby Jones
Case 2: A 24 year old male with a renal mass.
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Case 2: A 24 year old male with a renal mass.
Correct
Answer: C. Inflammatory myofibroblastic tumor
Histologic Description: This is a spindle cell lesion composed of relatively uniform spindle cells with abundant admixed lymphocytes and plasma cells. The spindle cells form relatively loosely fascicles, with abundant intervening inflammation. These are the typical morphologic features of inflammatory myofibroblastic tumor.
Differential Diagnosis: Sarcomatoid carcinoma would be expected to demonstrate greater pleomorphism, be associated with identifiable epithelial component, and demonstrate immunoreactivity for cytokeratin. Leiomyosarcoma would form tighter fascicles, demonstrate more pleomorphism, and demonstrate densely eosinophilic cytoplasm. Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis typically has a more epithelioid appearance, with the histiocytes mimicking the clear cells of clear cell RCC.
Not all inflammatory myofibroblastic tumors demonstrate ALK gene rearrangements. A subset will instead demonstrate the ETV6-NTRK3 gene fusion found in infantile fibrosarcoma, ROS1 gene fusions, and other alterations.
Reference Am J Surg Pathol 2016; 40:1051-1061.
Incorrect
Answer: C. Inflammatory myofibroblastic tumor
Histologic Description: This is a spindle cell lesion composed of relatively uniform spindle cells with abundant admixed lymphocytes and plasma cells. The spindle cells form relatively loosely fascicles, with abundant intervening inflammation. These are the typical morphologic features of inflammatory myofibroblastic tumor.
Differential Diagnosis: Sarcomatoid carcinoma would be expected to demonstrate greater pleomorphism, be associated with identifiable epithelial component, and demonstrate immunoreactivity for cytokeratin. Leiomyosarcoma would form tighter fascicles, demonstrate more pleomorphism, and demonstrate densely eosinophilic cytoplasm. Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis typically has a more epithelioid appearance, with the histiocytes mimicking the clear cells of clear cell RCC.
Not all inflammatory myofibroblastic tumors demonstrate ALK gene rearrangements. A subset will instead demonstrate the ETV6-NTRK3 gene fusion found in infantile fibrosarcoma, ROS1 gene fusions, and other alterations.
Reference Am J Surg Pathol 2016; 40:1051-1061.
Presented by Dr. Pedram Argani and prepared by Dr. Robby Jones.
Case 1: This is a 25 year old female with a gastric mass.
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Case 1: This is a 25 year old female with a gastric mass.
Correct
Answer: A. Gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST)
Histologic Description: This is a predominantly epithelioid neoplasm with a multinodular low power appearance and a solid nested appearance at high power. The neoplastic cells have even chromatin, and the nuclei are relatively uniform throughout. By immunohistochemistry, this neoplasm was immunoreactive for CD117 but not for S100, desmin, or PAX8. Given the young patient age, multinodular/plexiform appearance and epithelioid cytology, the neoplasm was tested for succinate dehydrogenase B by immunohistochemistry and found to be deficient, supporting the diagnosis of SDH-deficient GIST.
Differential Diagnosis: Melanoma would demonstrate more pleomorphism, and would label diffusely for S100. Leiomyosarcoma would be expected to label for desmin, and again demonstrate greater pleomorphism and more spindled appearance. Metastatic renal cell carcinoma is a serious consideration based on morphology; however, the neoplasm was negative for PAX8 and no renal lesion was identified.
Case 1: This is a 25 year old female with a gastric mass.
Diagnosis:
A. Gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST)
B. Melanoma
C. Leiomyosarcoma
D. Metastatic renal cell carcinoma
Answer: A
Histologic Description: This is a predominantly epithelioid neoplasm with a multinodular low power appearance and a solid nested appearance at high power. The neoplastic cells have even chromatin, and the nuclei are relatively uniform throughout. By immunohistochemistry, this neoplasm was immunoreactive for CD117 but not for S100, desmin, or PAX8. Given the young patient age, multinodular/plexiform appearance and epithelioid cytology, the neoplasm was tested for succinate dehydrogenase B by immunohistochemistry and found to be deficient, supporting the diagnosis of SDH-deficient GIST.
Differential Diagnosis: Melanoma would demonstrate more pleomorphism, and would label diffusely for S100. Leiomyosarcoma would be expected to label for desmin, and again demonstrate greater pleomorphism and more spindled appearance. Metastatic renal cell carcinoma is a serious consideration based on morphology; however, the neoplasm was negative for PAX8 and no renal lesion was identified.
SDH-deficient gastrointestinal stromal tumors typically involve the stomach, have a multinodular/plexiform low power appearance, are typically epithelioid, and metastasize to lymph nodes. Conventional risk criteria for GIST (size, mitoses) do not apply to these tumors, which have a high risk of metastasis (approximately 70%).
Reference: Mason EF, Hornick JL. Am J Surg Pathol 2016; 40:1616-1621
Incorrect
Answer: A. Gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST)
Histologic Description: This is a predominantly epithelioid neoplasm with a multinodular low power appearance and a solid nested appearance at high power. The neoplastic cells have even chromatin, and the nuclei are relatively uniform throughout. By immunohistochemistry, this neoplasm was immunoreactive for CD117 but not for S100, desmin, or PAX8. Given the young patient age, multinodular/plexiform appearance and epithelioid cytology, the neoplasm was tested for succinate dehydrogenase B by immunohistochemistry and found to be deficient, supporting the diagnosis of SDH-deficient GIST.
Differential Diagnosis: Melanoma would demonstrate more pleomorphism, and would label diffusely for S100. Leiomyosarcoma would be expected to label for desmin, and again demonstrate greater pleomorphism and more spindled appearance. Metastatic renal cell carcinoma is a serious consideration based on morphology; however, the neoplasm was negative for PAX8 and no renal lesion was identified.
Case 1: This is a 25 year old female with a gastric mass.
Diagnosis:
A. Gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST)
B. Melanoma
C. Leiomyosarcoma
D. Metastatic renal cell carcinoma
Answer: A
Histologic Description: This is a predominantly epithelioid neoplasm with a multinodular low power appearance and a solid nested appearance at high power. The neoplastic cells have even chromatin, and the nuclei are relatively uniform throughout. By immunohistochemistry, this neoplasm was immunoreactive for CD117 but not for S100, desmin, or PAX8. Given the young patient age, multinodular/plexiform appearance and epithelioid cytology, the neoplasm was tested for succinate dehydrogenase B by immunohistochemistry and found to be deficient, supporting the diagnosis of SDH-deficient GIST.
Differential Diagnosis: Melanoma would demonstrate more pleomorphism, and would label diffusely for S100. Leiomyosarcoma would be expected to label for desmin, and again demonstrate greater pleomorphism and more spindled appearance. Metastatic renal cell carcinoma is a serious consideration based on morphology; however, the neoplasm was negative for PAX8 and no renal lesion was identified.
SDH-deficient gastrointestinal stromal tumors typically involve the stomach, have a multinodular/plexiform low power appearance, are typically epithelioid, and metastasize to lymph nodes. Conventional risk criteria for GIST (size, mitoses) do not apply to these tumors, which have a high risk of metastasis (approximately 70%).
Reference: Mason EF, Hornick JL. Am J Surg Pathol 2016; 40:1616-1621
Presented by Dr. Jonathan Epstein and prepared by Dr. Robby Jones.
A 60 year old female underwent a TUR of the bladder following hematuria.
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A 60 year old female underwent a TUR of the bladder following hematuria.
Choose the correct diagnosis:
Correct
Answer: B. Leiomyosarcoma
Histological description:The tumor shows variable histology. In some areas there are well-formed fascicles of smooth muscle cut in both parallel and cross-section planes of section, characterized by cells with eosinophilic cytoplasm and elongated rounded-edged nuclei. Although relatively bland, then the least atypical area shows hypercellularity with scattered hyperchromatic enlarged nuclei and increased mitotic activity. Other areas of the tumor show much more pronounced pleomorphism and a less recognizable fascicular growth pattern.
Discussion. Leiomyomas of the bladder differ from the normal muscularis propria in that the former has compact smooth muscle fibers arranged haphazardly, whereas the latter is composed of well-organized discrete bundles of smooth muscle. Leiomyomas of the bladder have a uniform histology throughout and have no atypia except uncommonly focal degenerative cytological atypia unaccompanied by mitotic activity and not associated with hypercellularity. Leiomoyosarcomas of the bladder can vary within a single lesion in terms of its grade, as in the current case, but will never have areas that resemble a leiomyoma. Consequently, if a smooth muscle tumor with the histology of a leiomyoma is seen on a TUR, pathologists can diagnose it as benign even though the lesion may not have been completely sampled. If a low grade leiomyosarcoma is diagnosed on TUR, a comment must be added that there may be grade heterogeneity and that a higher grade component cannot be excluded if the lesion has not been completely resected.
Smooth muscle neoplasms of the urinary bladder: a clinicopathologic study of 51 cases.
Lee TK, Miyamoto H, Osunkoya AO, Guo CC, Weiss SW, Epstein JI.
Am J Surg Pathol. 2010 Apr;34(4):502-9.
Incorrect
Answer: B. Leiomyosarcoma
Histological description:The tumor shows variable histology. In some areas there are well-formed fascicles of smooth muscle cut in both parallel and cross-section planes of section, characterized by cells with eosinophilic cytoplasm and elongated rounded-edged nuclei. Although relatively bland, then the least atypical area shows hypercellularity with scattered hyperchromatic enlarged nuclei and increased mitotic activity. Other areas of the tumor show much more pronounced pleomorphism and a less recognizable fascicular growth pattern.
Discussion. Leiomyomas of the bladder differ from the normal muscularis propria in that the former has compact smooth muscle fibers arranged haphazardly, whereas the latter is composed of well-organized discrete bundles of smooth muscle. Leiomyomas of the bladder have a uniform histology throughout and have no atypia except uncommonly focal degenerative cytological atypia unaccompanied by mitotic activity and not associated with hypercellularity. Leiomoyosarcomas of the bladder can vary within a single lesion in terms of its grade, as in the current case, but will never have areas that resemble a leiomyoma. Consequently, if a smooth muscle tumor with the histology of a leiomyoma is seen on a TUR, pathologists can diagnose it as benign even though the lesion may not have been completely sampled. If a low grade leiomyosarcoma is diagnosed on TUR, a comment must be added that there may be grade heterogeneity and that a higher grade component cannot be excluded if the lesion has not been completely resected.
Smooth muscle neoplasms of the urinary bladder: a clinicopathologic study of 51 cases.
Lee TK, Miyamoto H, Osunkoya AO, Guo CC, Weiss SW, Epstein JI.
Am J Surg Pathol. 2010 Apr;34(4):502-9.
Presented by Dr. Jonathan Epsein and prepared by Dr. Robby Jones>
History: A 75 year old man underwent a resection of a lesion involving the penis.
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History: A 75 year old man underwent a resection of a lesion involving the penis.
Choose the correct diagnosis:
Correct
Answer: D. Hybrid verrucous carcinoma/usual squamous cell carcinoma
Histology: Compared to the thin adjacent normal squamous epithelium, there is a lesion composed of hyperplastic squamous epithelium which has a spiky verruciform surface and broad pushing tongues extending deep into the underlying connective tissue. The verruciform lesion has no cytological atypia. Focally, within the verrucous lesion, there are irregular nests of squamous epithelium with moderate atypia and occasional dyskeratotic cells invading superficially into the underlying tissue.
Discussion: Verrucous carcinoma, despite its name, is not a lesion associated with HPV. Hence it lacks the crinkly viral nuclear atypia and koilocytosis seen in condylomas and warty carcinomas. The diagnosis of verrucous carcinoma cannot be made on superficial biopsies, as the key diagnostic feature is the presence of invasion which typically can only be made on resection specimens. Verrucous carcinomas have broad base bulbous papillae with marked acanthosis, where the papillae extend well beyond the plane of the basal cell layer of adjacent uninvolved squamous epithelium. Cytologically, the tumor is extremely well-differentiated, indistinguishable from normal epithelium. In contrast, the area of usual squamous cell carcinoma has an irregular infiltrative base with jagged edged nests. The cells in the squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) also have a little but more cytologic atypia than verrucous carcinoma. Mixed usual-type SCC/verrucous carcinoma (Hybrid verrucous SCC) is used where typical areas of verrucous carcinoma coexist with foci of an otherwise usual low or high-grade SCC. Generous sampling is advised in verrucous SCC in order to rule out the presence of usual SCC foci. The treatment for verrucous carcinoma is conservative surgical excision. No lymph node metastases have ever been reported in pure verrucous SCC, such that prophylactic inguinal lymphadenectomy is not indicated. There is a higher metastatic and recurrence rates encountered in hybrid verrucous SCC approach that of SCC, usual type. The prognosis of the usual SCC component can be predicted according to penile risk-group stratification systems, taking into account histological grade, anatomical level of maximum tumor infiltration, and the presence of vascular and perineural invasion. Penectomy with adjuvant radiation and chemotherapy is recommended for usual SCC based on depth of invasion, presence of vascular or perineural invasion and grade. In cases where lymph node metastases are clinically suspected, inguinal lymphadenectomy is indicated.
Incorrect
Answer: D. Hybrid verrucous carcinoma/usual squamous cell carcinoma
Histology: Compared to the thin adjacent normal squamous epithelium, there is a lesion composed of hyperplastic squamous epithelium which has a spiky verruciform surface and broad pushing tongues extending deep into the underlying connective tissue. The verruciform lesion has no cytological atypia. Focally, within the verrucous lesion, there are irregular nests of squamous epithelium with moderate atypia and occasional dyskeratotic cells invading superficially into the underlying tissue.
Discussion: Verrucous carcinoma, despite its name, is not a lesion associated with HPV. Hence it lacks the crinkly viral nuclear atypia and koilocytosis seen in condylomas and warty carcinomas. The diagnosis of verrucous carcinoma cannot be made on superficial biopsies, as the key diagnostic feature is the presence of invasion which typically can only be made on resection specimens. Verrucous carcinomas have broad base bulbous papillae with marked acanthosis, where the papillae extend well beyond the plane of the basal cell layer of adjacent uninvolved squamous epithelium. Cytologically, the tumor is extremely well-differentiated, indistinguishable from normal epithelium. In contrast, the area of usual squamous cell carcinoma has an irregular infiltrative base with jagged edged nests. The cells in the squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) also have a little but more cytologic atypia than verrucous carcinoma. Mixed usual-type SCC/verrucous carcinoma (Hybrid verrucous SCC) is used where typical areas of verrucous carcinoma coexist with foci of an otherwise usual low or high-grade SCC. Generous sampling is advised in verrucous SCC in order to rule out the presence of usual SCC foci. The treatment for verrucous carcinoma is conservative surgical excision. No lymph node metastases have ever been reported in pure verrucous SCC, such that prophylactic inguinal lymphadenectomy is not indicated. There is a higher metastatic and recurrence rates encountered in hybrid verrucous SCC approach that of SCC, usual type. The prognosis of the usual SCC component can be predicted according to penile risk-group stratification systems, taking into account histological grade, anatomical level of maximum tumor infiltration, and the presence of vascular and perineural invasion. Penectomy with adjuvant radiation and chemotherapy is recommended for usual SCC based on depth of invasion, presence of vascular or perineural invasion and grade. In cases where lymph node metastases are clinically suspected, inguinal lymphadenectomy is indicated.
Presented by Dr. Jonathan Epstein and prepared by Dr. Robby Jones.
History: A 54 year old man was found to have a paratesticular mass at the time of a hydrocele repair.
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Correct
Answer: C. Well-differentiated papillary mesothelioma of uncertain malignant potential
Histology: Multiple nodules were present on the tunica vaginalis. In areas the tumor was composed of simple papillary structures lined by single layer of cuboidal cells. Other areas had more complex papillary architecture with tubular component, focal fusion of papillae with stratification of lining cells and focal cribriform formation. Invasion into the underlying connective tissue was not present. Cytologically, the cells were bland and relatively uniform with only modest amount of eosinophilic cytoplasm. Mitotic figures were not present.
Discussion: All of the choices in this case are mesotheliomas. We don’t use the term “mesothelioma” for an adenomatoid tumor, despite it having all the immunohistochemical features of a mesothelioma, since it is a well-characterized benign entity that has been known as “adenomatoid tumor”. Adenomatoid tumors typically involve the epididymis and not the tunica vaginalis. They are composed of tubules, lined by flattened often vacuolated cells, that are embedded within either a fibrous or smooth muscle stroma, not resembling the papillary morphology seen in the current case. Malignant mesotheliomas typically have greater cytological atypia, increased mitotic activity, and infiltrate beneath the surface mesothelium lining the tunica. Well-differentiated papillary mesothelioma is composed entirely of simple papillary structures lined by single layer of cuboidal cells, and behaves in a benign fashion but can be multifocal. The term of well-differentiated papillary mesothelioma of uncertain malignant potential is used for well-differentiated papillary mesothelioma with areas having more complex architecture, yet without cytological atypia and invasion. Although to date these borderline lesions have also behaved in a benign fashion, because experience with them is limited their benign diagnosis is qualified with “uncertain malignant potential”.
Mesothelioma of the tunica vaginalis: a series of eight cases with uncertain malignant potential.
Brimo F, Illei PB, Epstein JI.
Mod Pathol. 2010 Aug;23(8):1165-72.
Incorrect
Answer: C. Well-differentiated papillary mesothelioma of uncertain malignant potential
Histology: Multiple nodules were present on the tunica vaginalis. In areas the tumor was composed of simple papillary structures lined by single layer of cuboidal cells. Other areas had more complex papillary architecture with tubular component, focal fusion of papillae with stratification of lining cells and focal cribriform formation. Invasion into the underlying connective tissue was not present. Cytologically, the cells were bland and relatively uniform with only modest amount of eosinophilic cytoplasm. Mitotic figures were not present.
Discussion: All of the choices in this case are mesotheliomas. We don’t use the term “mesothelioma” for an adenomatoid tumor, despite it having all the immunohistochemical features of a mesothelioma, since it is a well-characterized benign entity that has been known as “adenomatoid tumor”. Adenomatoid tumors typically involve the epididymis and not the tunica vaginalis. They are composed of tubules, lined by flattened often vacuolated cells, that are embedded within either a fibrous or smooth muscle stroma, not resembling the papillary morphology seen in the current case. Malignant mesotheliomas typically have greater cytological atypia, increased mitotic activity, and infiltrate beneath the surface mesothelium lining the tunica. Well-differentiated papillary mesothelioma is composed entirely of simple papillary structures lined by single layer of cuboidal cells, and behaves in a benign fashion but can be multifocal. The term of well-differentiated papillary mesothelioma of uncertain malignant potential is used for well-differentiated papillary mesothelioma with areas having more complex architecture, yet without cytological atypia and invasion. Although to date these borderline lesions have also behaved in a benign fashion, because experience with them is limited their benign diagnosis is qualified with “uncertain malignant potential”.
Mesothelioma of the tunica vaginalis: a series of eight cases with uncertain malignant potential.
Brimo F, Illei PB, Epstein JI.
Mod Pathol. 2010 Aug;23(8):1165-72.
Presented by Dr. Pedram Argani and prepared by Dr. Robby Jones
This is a 56 year old male with a gastric tumor.
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This is a 56 year old male with a gastric tumor.
Correct
Answer: B
Histology: This is a bland spindle cell lesion centered in the muscularis propria. The neoplastic cells form fascicles, have generally rectangular nuclei, and have pink cytoplasm, all features which suggest smooth muscle differentiation. There are intervening areas of hyalinization and cells with pale cytoplasm. The spindle cells do not show significant atypia or mitotic activity. The lesional cells are diffusely immunoreactive for desmin and caldesmon, which support smooth muscle differentiation. There is abundant staining for CD117 (c-kit) in the tumor. These represent hyperplastic entrapped interstitial cells of Cajal, which has been reported in deep leiomyoma of the esophagus and stomach (Am J Surg Pathol 2014; 38:72-77).
Differential Diagnosis: GIST would feature cells with more angulated nuclei and more diffuse CD117 immunoreactivity. GIST typically do not stain desmin and caldesmon. Leiomyosarcoma would demonstrate greater nuclear atypia and mitotic activity. Schwannomas would not label for desmin, and would feature more angulated nuclei and Verocay bodies.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Histology: This is a bland spindle cell lesion centered in the muscularis propria. The neoplastic cells form fascicles, have generally rectangular nuclei, and have pink cytoplasm, all features which suggest smooth muscle differentiation. There are intervening areas of hyalinization and cells with pale cytoplasm. The spindle cells do not show significant atypia or mitotic activity. The lesional cells are diffusely immunoreactive for desmin and caldesmon, which support smooth muscle differentiation. There is abundant staining for CD117 (c-kit) in the tumor. These represent hyperplastic entrapped interstitial cells of Cajal, which has been reported in deep leiomyoma of the esophagus and stomach (Am J Surg Pathol 2014; 38:72-77).
Differential Diagnosis: GIST would feature cells with more angulated nuclei and more diffuse CD117 immunoreactivity. GIST typically do not stain desmin and caldesmon. Leiomyosarcoma would demonstrate greater nuclear atypia and mitotic activity. Schwannomas would not label for desmin, and would feature more angulated nuclei and Verocay bodies.
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